NIPER-JEE MCQ 2005
QUIZ NO 5
TOTAL QUESTIONS = 20
1. In microbiology, the term COMPETENCE stands for?
A. Ability of microbes to generate resistance to antibiotics.
B. Ability of host cell destruction.
C. Genetically transformable.
D. None of the above.
2. Shortening the carbon chain of aldoses is known as ______.
A. Ruff degradation
B. Kiliani-Fisher synthesis
C. Oxidative degradation
D. Arndt-Eistert synthesis
3. During fermentation of penicillin, the pH is first adjusted to 2. Why?
A. For maximum growth of Penicillium chrysogenum.
B. For maximum yield.
C. Penicillin exists as an undissociated acid, so it is soluble in organic solvents.
D. To remove the impurity.
4. Dry cough is a major side effect of ______.
A. ACE inhibitors
B. β blockers
C. CCBs
D. Diuretics
5. Ethyl acetate gives ______ peaks in H-NMR.
A. 4
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
6. Which of the following is not true about the law of thermodynamics?
A. The zeroth law of thermodynamics allows the assignment of a unique temperature to systems.
B. The 1st law expresses the existence of a quantity called the internal energy of a system.
C. The 2nd law expresses the existence of a quantity called the entropy of a system.
D. The 3rd law concerns the internal energy of a perfect crystal at elevated temperature.
7. C-peptide assay in hyperglycemic patients is done to determine ______.
A. Elevated blood sugar level
B. To determine type of diabetes
C. To check safety of insulin therapy
D. None of the above
8. P watch goes back to 1 minute/day and Q watch goes back to ½ minute/day. After how many days will P watch be 5 minutes back compared to Q watch?
A. 5 days
B. 10 days
C. 2.5 days
D. 2 days
9. Totipotency is ______.
A. Ability of a single cell to divide and produce all the differentiated cells in an organism.
B. Ability of a single cell to differentiate into any of the 3 germ layers: endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm.
C. Potential to give rise to cells from multiple, but a limited number of lineages.
D. All of the above.
10. Which of the following peaks will be observed in the mass spectrum of a compound containing a Cl atom?
A. M and M+1
B. M and M+2 1/3 as large as M
C. M and M+2 as large as M
D. M, M+2, and M+4
11. Which of the following is false about the secondary structure of protein?
A. Twisting and folding of polypeptides produce secondary structure.
B. Extensive hydrogen bonding stabilizes the secondary structure.
C. All peptide bonds do not participate in hydrogen bonding.
D. α-helix is an unstable conformation because it formed spontaneously with the highest energy.
12. Which of the following is the correct NMR data for CH3-COO-C2H5?
A. δ=1.56m (3H), δ=3.69s (2H), δ=1.02t (3H)
B. δ=2.66s (3H), δ=2.89m (5H)
C. δ=3.66s (3H), δ=2.32q (2H), δ=1.1t (3H)
D. None of the above.
13. Which of the following is not a penetration enhancer?
A. DMSO
B. Taurocholate
C. Sodium oleate
D. Chondroitin sulfate
14. Which of the following causes renal impairment?
A. Cisplatin
B. Levodopa
C. Piroxicam
D. Gabapentin
15. Isoprene is the basic unit of ______.
A. Tannins
B. Terpenes
C. Alkaloids
D. Glycosides
16. Electrophoresis is based upon ______.
A. Physical process
B. Physico-chemical process
C. Chemical process
D. None of the above.
17. Which of the following is false about glycolysis?
A. It occurs in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions.
B. It is the major pathway for ATP production in tissues lacking mitochondria.
C. Lactate is the end product of the aerobic condition.
D. It is essential for the brain.
18. Which of the following is a soft ionization source in a mass spectrometer?
A. Chemical ionization
B. Electrostatic spray ionization
C. MALDI
D. All of the above
19. Isocratic technique is the technique of elution that includes ______.
A. Changing adsorbent for different substances
B. Changing solvent composition
C. Keeping solvent system same throughout the process
D. Rising evaporating temperature
20. The size of droplet in emulsion is ______.
A. 0.5-50 μm
B. 5-50 μm
C. 0.1-1 μm
D. 1-100 μm
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